SIA Engineering's response to SGX queries still sheds no light on why JP Morgan
offered to sell 28 million shares. Looking at the volume traded on 4 october, about 5.5 million shares changed hands through SGX. The past 2-3 months total volume also don't add up to 28 million which mean they haven't sold it yet. Could they have done it through a married deal and who is the counterparty? According to SGX rulebook, married deal needs to be reported.
8.7.4
Direct Business must be reported through the married trade reporting system of the Trading System under
Rule 8.7.5.
I need to be educated on this.
How did Reuters or Bloomberg know about this? And why would JP Morgan make it a public news? Very curious.
Actually, people tend to focus on the bad news but every sale has a buyer and what if the buyer ......
